Comparison of Scripture Disproves Claim of ‘Objective Genitive’ in Galatians 2:16

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Here's an example that gives the Greek text followed by the translation in both KJV & NIV versions:

Greek text:

"...τῷ σταυρῷ τοῦ Χριστοῦ (Ἰησοῦ)"

Galatians 6:12 "...the cross of Christ (NIV)".

And,

Galatians 6:12 "...the cross of Christ (KJV)".

The modern translator seems to be able to recognize the Greek genitive case and translate it as 'of'---whenever faith is NOT in view. But, as soon as faith is mentioned somehow it becomes an objective genitive and must be translated as 'in'.

Very curious. And very obviously theologically biased.

COMPARISON OF SCRIPTURE DISPROVES CLAIM OF ‘OBJECTIVE GENITIVE’:

Ephesians 1:1 Paul, an apostle of Christ Jesus... (NIV)

Ephesians 1:1 Paul, an apostle of Jesus Christ ... (KJV)

Genitive case translated correctly in both Bible versions.

Here's some more translations of the Greek genitive:

Ephesians 2:13 ...by the blood of Christ (NIV)

Ephesians 2:13 ...by the blood of Christ (KJV)

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Ephesians 3:1 ...the prisoner of Christ Jesus... (NIV)

Ephesians 3:1 ...the prisoner of Jesus Christ...(KJV)

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Ephesians 3:4 ...into the mystery of Christ (NIV)

Ephesians 3:4 ...in the mystery of Christ) (KJV)

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Ephesians 3:8 ...the boundless riches of Christ (NIV)

Ephesians 3:8 ...the unsearchable riches of Christ (KJV)

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Ephesians 4:12 ...the body of Christ may be built up (NIV)

Ephesians 4:12 ...the edifying of the body of Christ (KJV)

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Ephesians 5:5 ...has any inheritance in the kingdom of Christ and of God (NIV)

Ephesians 5:5 ...hath any inheritance in the kingdom of Christ and of God (KJV)

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Philippians 1:6 ...until the day of Christ Jesus (NIV)

Philippians 1:6 ...until the day of Jesus Christ (KJV)

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Philippians 2:16 ...the day of Christ... (NIV)

Philippians 2:16 ...in the day of Christ,...(KJV)

MODERN SCHOLARS TRANSLATE GENITIVE CASE CORRECTLY---UNTIL---FAITH IS MENTIONED

Again and again and again, the NIV and its team of modern scholars translates the genitive case in relationship to Christ or Christ Jesus correctly----until---faith is mentioned. Then suddenly its no longer translated 'of Christ' but instead its 'in Christ'.

As in this verse:

Philippians 3:9 and be found in him, not having a righteousness of my own that comes from the law, but that which is through faith in Christ...(NIV)

Compared to:

Philippians 3:9 And be found in him, not having mine own righteousness, which is of the law, but that which is through the faith of Christ,... (KJV)

And yet, here's the Greek text:

Philippians 3:9 καὶ εὑρεθῶ ἐν αὐτῷ μὴ ἔχων ἐμὴν δικαιοσύνην τὴν ἐκ νόμου, ἀλλὰ τὴν διὰ πίστεως Χριστοῦ

Clearly "πίστεως Χριστοῦ" should be translated as 'faith of Christ' and not 'faith in Christ'. There is NO grammatical rule that caused the NIV translators to make this change. They changed it on the basis of being theologically influenced. In other words, they wanted it to read 'in' and not 'of'.

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